|
|
One explanation of the appearance of contradiction between Romans 2:13 and 3:28 is that in Romans 2:13 Paul is using the word "to justify" in the same sense he uses it in Romans 3:4. In that passage "justified" means "be vindicated," or "to demonstrate to be morally right, prove to be right." This is a common meaning of the verb in the New Testament (Mt 11:19, 12:37; Lk 7:35, 10:29, 16:15; 1 Cor 4:4; 1 Tim 3:16). They have already been justified in the forensic sense, acquitted once and for all by a God's declaration, Romans 5:1, in the sense they will never experience eternal damnation. But it is clear that there is a justification by works in the New Testament that means to be vindicated as morally right. This is the justification James spoke of (Jas 2:14). In this case Paul and James both mean that the "doer" is proven to have lived. He will be vindicated by his works before Christ in the sense that Christ will says, "Well done." He will then be rewarded in the future kingdom (2 Cor 5:10-11).
The more common justification is by faith alone and is a judicial act (Rom 5:1) whereby Christ's righteousness is imputed to us (2 Cor 5:21). Since one is by works the other is by faith, context determines which is meant. If works are the condition of justification in Romans 2:13, obviously it cannot refer to a forensic declaration which is obtained via faith alone apart from works.
The other possible explanation suggested by many bible scholars is that in Romans 2:16 Paul is speaking hypothetically. In other words, when Paul says that only "the doers of the law will be justified" this is absolute truth. The problem, however, is that there are no doers because Paul later says, "there is none righteous, not even one." God requires perfect obedience, perfect righteousness and no one has met that standard. Thus man's only hope is the perfect righteousness offered by faith in Christ (see 2 Cor 5:21; Rom 3:28).